What is this caled? (Opposite of ACD?) [Telecom]

What is this caled? (Opposite of ACD?) [Telecom]

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Subject Author Date
What is this caled? (Opposite of ACD?) [Telecom] kasaubon7@gmail.com 08-06-2008
Posted by kasaubon7@gmail.com on August 6, 2008, 9:35 am
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I am looking for hardware which will allow me to automatically switch
my outgoing line, hopefully managed over a LAN.

I have 20+ lines for outgoing calls. Based on the user logging into
the computer, I would need to switch their outgoing line.

I don't know what this is called. I was told "Automatic Call
Distributor", but based on my searches this seems like it has more to
do with routing incoming calls, when I want to route outgoing calls to
particular outgoing lines.

***** Moderator's Note *****

I presume you mean you want to select an outgoing line based on the
number being called, and in that case it's a fairly routine function
available from all the major PBX vendors.

However, if you want to select a line based on the _user_ who (whom? I
can never remember...) is _placing_ the call, no matter which number
that user is dialing, then I'm a bit confused: please tell us why and
what your goal is.

Bill Horne
Temporary Moderator

Please put [Telecom] at the end of your subject line, or I may never
see your post! Thanks!

We have a new address for email submissions: telecomdigestmoderator
atsign telecom-digest.org. This is only for those who submit posts via
email: if you use a newsreader or a web interface to contribute to the
digest, you don't need to change anything.


NMFall 20%
Posted by MC on August 6, 2008, 10:15 am
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> However, if you want to select a line based on the _user_ who (whom? I
> can never remember...) is _placing_ the call, ...

The difference between "who" and "whom" is the same as the difference
between "he" and "him".

"He is placing the call" --> "the user who is placing the call"

"You called him" --> "the user whom you called"

Now you know. And no grammatical theory or terminology is required!

I'm a linguist; they pay me to think about things like this.

***** Moderator's Note *****

MC, they should pay you extra for today: yours is the most clear,
concise, and memorable advice I've ever received on this subject.

Of course, I can't promise I'll always remember to apply it, but I
_will_ always remember that you explained it well. ;-)

Bill Horne
Temporary Moderator

Please put [Telecom] at the end of your subject line, or I may never
see your post! Thanks!

We have a new address for email submissions: telecomdigestmoderator
atsign telecom-digest.org. This is only for those who submit posts via
email: if you use a newsreader or a web interface to contribute to the
digest, you don't need to change anything.


Posted by MC on August 6, 2008, 7:47 pm
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> The difference between "who" and "whom" is the same as the difference
> between "he" and "him".
> ***** Moderator's Note *****
> MC, they should pay you extra for today: yours is the most clear,
> concise, and memorable advice I've ever received on this subject.

Glad to be of service. Here's one more:

The difference between "its" and "it's" is the same as the difference
between "his" and "he's".

"He's puzzling." -> "It's puzzling."

"his strange attributes" -> "its strange attributes"

(Unlike nouns, possessive pronouns, such as "his," don't have an
apostrophe.)

If everybody would teach grammar this way, we'd have a much easier time.
Instead, it is traditional to teach English grammar by force-fitting it onto
Latin grammar -- which doesn't work very well; Latin has a very different
structure than English, and if you insist on describing English with Latin
rules and tools of thought, you get a lot of things wrong, such as the
mysterious rule against split infinitives.

Now back to telecom...

***** Moderator's Note *****

OMG! Latin? I didn't know that!

As the parent of a learning-disabled child, I've had to see way too
much of the dark underbelly of American education, and this explains a
lot - I don't remember any Latin, but the idea of basing instruction
in one language on the grammar of another is typical of the kind of
snafus I've seen.

Bill Horne
Temporary Moderator

Please put [Telecom] at the end of your subject line, or I may never
see your post! Thanks!

We have a new address for email submissions: telecomdigestmoderator
atsign telecom-digest.org. This is only for those who submit posts via
email: if you use a newsreader or a web interface to contribute to the
digest, you don't need to change anything.


Posted by Henry on August 7, 2008, 1:57 am
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> The difference between "its" and "it's" is the same as the difference
> between "his" and "he's".
>
> "He's puzzling." -> "It's puzzling."
>
> "his strange attributes" -> "its strange attributes"
>
> (Unlike nouns, possessive pronouns, such as "his," don't have an
> apostrophe.)

Oops. In your example above, 'his strange attributes', "his" is of
course a possessive _adjective_, not a possessive pronoun.

'the red BMW is _his_ car' -> adjective, _describing_ 'car'

'the blue Audi is _his_' -> pronoun, _replacing_ '(Bill's) car'

This can be confusing because in the third person singular (masculine)
the same form, "his", is used in both instances. With the feminine at
least there is the difference between 'her' (adjective) and 'hers'
(pronoun) and with first person singular the distinction is perfectly
clear:

'my' -> 'mine'.

Let's not even get started with its / it's :-) -- what a can of
worms that is! Just the other day I actually saw someone use its' (can
you imagine?!?).

Oh, and by the way ... going back to

> (Unlike nouns, possessive pronouns, such as "his," don't have an
> apostrophe.)

we get your point. But consider this conversation heard daily down the
pub:

Mike: 'Oh, hallo lads! What'll ye have?'

Bill: 'I'll have a Guinness, please'.

Henry: 'Thanks, mate! Mine's a lager'.

'Mine' is most definitely a possessive pronoun and that is indubitably
an apostrophe crept in, there. So, appearances can be deceiving!

cheers,

Henry


Posted by MC on August 7, 2008, 11:28 am
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>
>> The difference between "its" and "it's" is the same as the difference
>> between "his" and "he's".
>>
>> "He's puzzling." -> "It's puzzling."
>>
>> "his strange attributes" -> "its strange attributes"
>>
>> (Unlike nouns, possessive pronouns, such as "his," don't have an
>> apostrophe.)
>
> Oops. In your example above, 'his strange attributes', "his" is of
> course a possessive _adjective_, not a possessive pronoun.

Right. It is syntactically an adjective but is formed from a pronoun and
serves as the possessive of a pronoun.

...

> Henry: 'Thanks, mate! Mine's a lager'.
>
> 'Mine' is most definitely a possessive pronoun and that is indubitably
> an apostrophe crept in, there. So, appearances can be deceiving!

But "'s" stands for "is" there. It is not a possessive marker.

Surely there is a linguistics newsgroup somewhere...

***** Moderator's Note *****

I'm sure there are several linguistics groups, but it's too much fun
watching who trumps whom.

Better watch out: I'll cc: my sister, and she can split an infinitive
until the participle grins ...

Bill Horne
Temporary Moderator

Please put [Telecom] at the end of your subject line, or I may never
see your post! Thanks!

We have a new address for email submissions: telecomdigestmoderator
atsign telecom-digest.org. This is only for those who submit posts via
email: if you use a newsreader or a web interface to contribute to the
digest, you don't need to change anything.


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