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Posted by jpd on January 6, 2008, 6:04 pm
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> If I have a router with a gigabit port assigned [... to two vlans ...]
> I create two VLANs in this switch, [... port assignments ...]
> Note that port 1 is a member in both VLANs.
>
> Can I now connect computers which don't know anything about VLANs to
> these switch two port ranges and automatically be connected to the
> appropriate router subnet according to the switch port, or isn't this
> possible? If not I assume that I also need to tag the workstations'
> nics with the correct VLAN ID, but I hope this is not necessary.
Your clients probably expect frames without a vlan tag, so no; you should
configure those ports to merely be a switchport in a vlan and the NICs
should receive untagged frames.
The one port that has two vlans, though, should be configured for
sending and receiving frames with vlan tags in them. That way, the
switch can use the tags in the frames to sort out what vlan the frames
belong to. It does mean the switch gets to add or remove the tags as
needed, depending on what port the frame passes through.
Note that one vlan on such a port can be implicit, or ``native'',
meaning that frames without a tag are assumed to belong to that vlan.
You would have to configure that on both the switch and the router.
--
j p d (at) d s b (dot) t u d e l f t (dot) n l .
This message was originally posted on Usenet in plain text.
Any other representation, additions, or changes do not have my
consent and may be a violation of international copyright law.
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