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Posted by Adam H. Kerman on March 7, 2008, 6:20 pm
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>Adam H. Kerman wrote:
>But there *ARE* some other (European) countries where the full
>national number MUST be dialed, even for "local" calls within the
>same area code, and the legacy leading '0' (displayed as the first
>actual digit of the area code) must also be dialed. I think France
>has been like this for at least ten years now.
I'm confused. I thought in the French dialing plan, 0 is a significant
digit in the first position of a telephone number as in the example
given in the other followup about how the French voice telephone numbers
by stating pairs of digits.
>>If that's the case, why is continued use of the 0 prefix part
>>of the dialing plan?
>Don't ask me.
It was rhetorical. I live in an area that requires 10-digit dialing with
a leading prefix for both home and foreign NPA dialing. I don't object
the overlay policy that makes use of the home NPA mandatory in the
dialing plan, but I do object to the leading prefix. The "1" ain't a
domestic trunk-identifying code as no such code was used in this area in
the days before electronic switches. It's a legacy of the expanded area
code rules, so only very recent, with no explanation as to why it's been
retained.
| ![Re: Written format of phone numbers [telecom]](/images/header.jpg)
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