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Posted by jmiklo on May 10, 2006, 7:33 pm
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Hi,
I am trying to explain something to myself so I'd appreciate someone shed
some light on this ...
Suppose we have softswitch (SS) with media gateway (MG) and signalling
gateway (SG). I.e call is coming from PSTN and ISUP IAM message is coming
via signalling link to SG.
Inside that ISUP message there is CIC (Circuit Identification Code) saying
which channel will be used on specific E1 link for voice/media. If
signalling gateway has M3UA implemented, ISUP message is extracted and sent
to SS (MGC - Media Gateway Controller).
Now MGC needs to control/activate that specific channel inside E1 links on
media gateway. Af far as I can see only master/slave voip protocols like
MGCP/H.248 can implement this, i.e. control specific channel on specific
port (i.e. channel 21 on second E1). It couldn't be done via SIP ? Or it
could ?
My point is, if everything is goind sip way, why is MGCP/Megaco still
heavily used for controlling media gateways (when interconnecting with SS7
networks).
thanks,
jmiklo
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