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Posted by on July 11, 2008, 9:16 pm
On 7=D4=C24=C8=D5, =C9=CF=CE=E77=CA=B134=B7=D6, rober...@hushmail.com (Walt=
er Roberson) wrote:
>
> >aaabb...@hotmail.com writes:
> >>Suppose I have a new cisco switch and all ports are belong to vlan 1.
> >>I use "interface0/1 switchport access vlan=3D90"
> >>Does this interface0/1 still belong to vlan 1
> >>or just belong to vlan 90 only?
>
> >Interfaces can only belong to one VLAN. (at least with anything in
> >recent history).
>
> Possibly that is true with Cisco equipment (I don't know), but it
> is not true in general. For example the Nortel Baystack line of
> switches allow one to assign VLANs according to packet protocol
> in a number of ways -- .e.g, 802.2 vs 802.3 vs SNAP.
>
> I -have- run into switches that allowed one to assign multiple port-
> based VLANs to the same port. What that -means-, exactly, in terms
> of the theory of what VLANs -are-, is not clear; I believe the practice
> on the devices I saw was that packets originating from any of the
> VLANs could be delivered to the same port, and that packets heading
> out of the port would be assigned into a VLAN according to the
> VLAN entry the destination MAC. Yes, this -would- have problems if
> the same MAC represented different devices on different VLANs, as
> is legal. The practical use of assigning multiple port-based
> VLANs to a port appeared to be to allow you to hang a server on
> the multiply-assigned port and have it able to talk to clients in
> several VLANs, with those clients not able to talk to each other
> directly, without the trouble of having to use multiple physical
> interfaces for the server or the trouble of configuring the server
> NIC as a trunk port.
How to config a access port with multiple Vlan using cisco switch?
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